Question

[Lê Tài Bảo Châu]

Chứng minh rằng

 \(\frac{1}{4028}< \left(\frac{1}{2}.\frac{3}{4}.\frac{5}{6}....\frac{2013}{2014}\right)^2< \frac{1}{2015}\)

Answer 1

[Pham Van Hung]

Đặt: \(A=\frac{1}{2}.\frac{3}{4}.\frac{5}{6}.\frac{7}{8}.....\frac{2013}{2014}\) (1)

Ta thấy \(A< \frac{2}{3}.\frac{4}{5}.\frac{6}{7}.\frac{8}{9}.....\frac{2014}{2015}\)

Do đó nhân vế với vế, ta được: 

\(A^2< \frac{1}{2}.\frac{2}{3}.\frac{3}{4}.\frac{4}{5}.\frac{5}{6}.\frac{6}{7}.\frac{7}{8}.\frac{8}{9}.....\frac{2013}{2014}.\frac{2014}{2015}\)

\(\Rightarrow A^2< \frac{1}{2015}\)

Mặt khác, \(A>\frac{1}{2}.\frac{4}{5}.\frac{6}{7}.\frac{8}{9}.....\frac{2014}{2015}\) (2)

Từ (1) và (2), ta được: 

\(A^2>\frac{1}{4}.\left(\frac{3}{4}.\frac{4}{5}.\frac{5}{6}.\frac{6}{7}.\frac{7}{8}.\frac{8}{9}.....\frac{2013}{2014}.\frac{2014}{2015}\right)\)

\(\Rightarrow A^2>\frac{1}{4}.\frac{3}{2015}\Rightarrow A^2>\frac{3}{8060}>\frac{1}{4028}\)