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a)
Vì 3<5
\(\Rightarrow3^{30}< 5^{30}\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(-3\right)^{30}< \left(-5\right)^{30}\)
b)
Ta có
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}=\left[\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4\right]^{10}.\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{10}\)
\(=\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}.\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{10}\)
Ta có
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{10}< 1\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}.\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{10}< \left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}\)
\(\Leftrightarrow\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}< \left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}\)
Bài 1 và Bài 2 dễ, bn có thể tự làm được!
Bài 3:
a) ta có: 1020 = (102)10 = 10010
=> 10010>910
=> 1020>910
b) ta có: (-5)30 = 530 =( 53)10 = 12510 ( vì là lũy thừa bậc chẵn)
(-3)50 = 350 = (35)10= 24310
=> 12510 < 24310
=> (-5)30 < (-3)50
c) ta có: 648 = (26)8= 248
1612 = ( 24)12 = 248
=> 648 = 1612
d) ta có: \(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}=\left(\frac{1}{2^4}\right)^{10}=\frac{1}{2^{40}}\)
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}=\frac{1}{2^{50}}\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{1}{2^{40}}>\frac{1}{2^{50}}\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}>\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}\)
Vì\(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}\)= \(\left[\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4\right]^{10}\)= \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{40}\)
Mà 40<50 =>\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{40}\)< \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}\)hay \(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}\)< \(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}\)
Vậy \(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}\)<\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}\)
Học giỏi!^^ (đúng thì k cho mik nhé,cảm ơn!)
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}=\left(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^5\right)^{10}=\left(\frac{1}{32}\right)^{10}\)
Ta có\(\frac{1}{16}>\frac{1}{32}\)nên\(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}>\left(\frac{1}{32}\right)^{10}\)hay\(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{10}>\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}\)
Ta có:
\(\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{50}=\left[\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4\right]^{50}=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{200}=\frac{1^{200}}{2^{200}}=\frac{1}{2^{200}}\)
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{60}=\frac{1^{60}}{2^{60}}=\frac{1}{2^{60}}\)
Vì \(2^{200}>2^{60}\Rightarrow\frac{1}{2^{200}}< \frac{1}{2^{60}}\Rightarrow\left(\frac{1}{16}\right)^{50}< \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{60}\)
a/
(0.3)20 = [(0.3)2]10 = (0.09)10
b/
(\(\frac{1}{6}\))10 = [(\(\frac{1}{2}\))4]10 = (\(\frac{1}{2}\))40
c/
2400 = (22)200 = 4200
(\(\frac{1}{2}\))50=(\(\frac{1}{2^5}\))10=(\(\frac{1}{32}\))10
Do 1/6> 1/30 nên (\(\frac{1}{6}\))10>(\(\frac{1}{2}\))50
\(\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}=\left[\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^5\right]^{10}=\left[\frac{1^5}{2^5}\right]^{10}=\left[\frac{1}{32}\right]^{10}\)
Vì 2 phân số này có cùng tử mà 6 < 30
=> \(\frac{1}{6}>\frac{1}{30}\)
=> \(\left(\frac{1}{6}\right)^{10}>\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{50}\)