Hepl me!Giúp mk ,mk tick cho 3 lần nha
3+6+12+24+.....+768+1536
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\(A=\dfrac{1}{3}\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+...+\dfrac{1}{256}+\dfrac{1}{512}\right)\)
Đặt B=1+1/2+...+1/256+1/512
=>2B=2+1+...+1/128+1/256
=>B=2-1/512=1023/512
=>\(A=\dfrac{1}{3}\cdot\dfrac{1023}{512}=\dfrac{341}{512}\)
\(A=\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{24}+\frac{1}{48}+\frac{1}{96}+\frac{1}{192}+\frac{1}{384}+\frac{1}{768}+\frac{1}{1536}\)
\(A\times2=\frac{2}{3}+\frac{2}{6}+\frac{2}{12}+\frac{2}{24}+\frac{2}{48}+\frac{2}{96}+\frac{2}{192}+\frac{2}{384}+\frac{2}{768}+\frac{2}{1536}\)
Rút gọn ta được
\(A\times2=\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{24}+\frac{1}{48}+\frac{1}{96}+\frac{1}{192}+\frac{1}{384}+\frac{1}{768}\)
\(A\times2-A=\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}+...+\frac{1}{768}-\left[\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{6}+...+\frac{1}{1536}\right]\)
\(A=\frac{2}{3}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{1536}\)
\(A=\frac{2}{3}-\frac{1}{1536}=\frac{341}{512}\)
20 : x + 30 : x = 50
(20 + 30) : x = 50
50 : x = 50
x = 50 : 50
x = 1
Vậy x = 1
20 : x + 30 : x = 50
( 20 + 30 ) : x = 50
50 : x = 50
x = 50 : 50
x = 1
\(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}+\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{30}+\frac{1}{42}\)
\(=\frac{1}{1\cdot2}+\frac{1}{2\cdot3}+\frac{1}{3\cdot4}+\frac{1}{4\cdot5}+\frac{1}{5\cdot6}+\frac{1}{6\cdot7}\)
\(=\frac{2-1}{1\cdot2}+\frac{3-2}{2\cdot3}+...+\frac{6-7}{6\cdot7}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{7}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{7}\)
\(=\frac{6}{7}\)
1-2+3-4+5-6+......+101-102+103
\(\left(1-2\right)+\left(3-4\right)+\left(5-6\right)+...+\left(101-102\right)+103\)
\(\left(-1\right)+\left(-1\right)+\left(-1\right)+...+\left(-1\right)+103\)( có 51 cặp số (1) )
\(\left(-51\right)+103\)
\(52\)
Vậy ...
1-2+3-4+5-6+......+101-102+103
=(103 - 102)+(101 - 100)+...+(7 - 6)+(5 - 4)+(3 - 2)+1
Ta thấy dãy trên có 51 cặp , mỗi cặp đều có tổng bằng 1.
= 1 * 51 +1
=1 * 52
=52.
A = 3 + 6 + 12 +24 + ... + 768 + 1536
A x 2 = 6 + 12 + 24 + 48 + ... + 1536 + 3072
A = 3 + 3072 = 3075
chịu nha bạn