Chứng minh rằng :
\(\dfrac{1}{1\cdot2}+\dfrac{1}{3\cdot4}+...+\dfrac{1}{49\cdot50}=\dfrac{1}{26}+\dfrac{1}{27}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\)
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Ta có:
1/1.2 + 1/3.4 + 1/5.6 + ... + 1/49.50 = 1/26 + 1/27 + 1/28 + .. + 1/50
Xét vế trái:
1/1.2 + 1/3.4 + 1/5.6 + ... + 1/49.50
= 1 - 1/2 + 1/3 - 1/4 + 1/5 - 1/6 + ... + 1/49 - 1/50
= ( 1 + 1/3 + 1/5 + ... + 1/49 ) - ( 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + ... + 1/50 )
= ( 1 + 1/3 + 1/5 + ... + 1/49 ) + (1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + ... + 1/50 ) - 2 . ( 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/6 + ... + 1/50 )
= ( 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + ...+ 1/49 + 1/50 ) - ( 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... + 1/25 )
= 1/26 + 1/27 + 1/28 + ... + 1/49 + 1/50 (1)
Từ (1) => Vế trái = Vế phải
=> Điều phải chứng minh
- HokTot -
Lời giải:
\(\text{VT}=\frac{1}{1.2}+\frac{1}{3.4}+....+\frac{1}{49.50}\)
\(=\frac{2-1}{1.2}+\frac{4-3}{3.4}+....+\frac{50-49}{49.50}\)
\(=1-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{4}+...+\frac{1}{49}-\frac{1}{50}\)
\(=\left(1+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{5}+...+\frac{1}{49}\right)-\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}....+\frac{1}{50}\right)\)
\(=1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{50}-2\left(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}....+\frac{1}{50}\right)\)
\(=1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+...+\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{50}-\left(1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}....+\frac{1}{25}\right)\)
\(=\frac{1}{26}+\frac{1}{27}+....+\frac{1}{49}+\frac{1}{50}\)
Do đó ta có đpcm.
\(LINH_1=\dfrac{1}{1.2}+\dfrac{1}{3.4}+\dfrac{1}{5.6}+....+\dfrac{1}{49.50}\)
\(=1-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{5}-\dfrac{1}{6}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}-\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(=\left(1+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{5}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}\right)-\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{6}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\)
\(=\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{5}+....+\dfrac{1}{49}+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)-2\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{6}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\)
\(=\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{5}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)-\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{25}\right)\)\(=\dfrac{1}{26}+\dfrac{1}{27}+\dfrac{1}{28}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}=LINH_2\left(đpcm\right)\)
\(A=\dfrac{1}{1.2}+\dfrac{1}{2.3}+\dfrac{1}{3.4}+...+\dfrac{1}{49.50}\)
\(A=1-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}-\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}-\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(A=1-\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(A=\dfrac{49}{50}\)
Ta có :
\(A=\dfrac{1}{1.2}+\dfrac{1}{2.3}+\dfrac{1}{3.4}+...........+\dfrac{1}{49.50}\)
\(A=\dfrac{1}{1}-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}-\dfrac{1}{3}+...........+\dfrac{1}{49}-\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(A=\dfrac{1}{1}-\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(A=\dfrac{49}{50}\)
~ Chúc bn học tốt ~
Ta có :
Vế phải =1 - 1/2 + 1/3 - 1/4 + ... + 1/49 - 1/50
= (1+ 1/3 + 1/5 + ... + 1/49) - (1/2 + 1/4 + ... +1/50)
<=> (1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + ... + 1/49+1/50)- 2(1/2 +1/4 +...+1/50)
=(1+1/2 +1/3 +1/4...+ 1/49+1/50) - (1+1/2 +...+1/25)
=1/26 + 1/27 +1/28 +...+1/50 (đpcm)
\(\dfrac{1}{1\cdot2}+\dfrac{1}{3\cdot4}+\dfrac{1}{5\cdot6}+...+\dfrac{1}{49\cdot50}\\ =1-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{5}-\dfrac{1}{6}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}-\dfrac{1}{50}\\ =\left(1+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{5}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}\right)-\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{6}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\\ =\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)-2\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+\dfrac{1}{6}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\\ =\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)-\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{25}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{26}+\dfrac{1}{27}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}+\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(\dfrac{1}{1.2}+\dfrac{1}{2.3}+...+\dfrac{1}{49.50}\)
\(=1-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{2}-\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}-\dfrac{1}{50}\)
\(=1-\dfrac{1}{50}< 1\)
11.2+12.3+...+149.5011.2+12.3+...+149.50
=1−12+12−13+...+149−150=1−12+12−13+...+149−150
=1−150<1
A=\(\dfrac{1}{1\cdot2\cdot3}+\dfrac{1}{2\cdot3\cdot4}+...+\dfrac{1}{2014\cdot2015\cdot2016}=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot\left(\dfrac{1}{1\cdot2}-\dfrac{1}{2\cdot3}+\dfrac{1}{2\cdot3}-\dfrac{1}{3\cdot4}+...+\dfrac{1}{2014\cdot2015}-\dfrac{1}{2015\cdot2016}\right)=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot\left(\dfrac{1}{2}-\dfrac{1}{2015}\cdot\dfrac{1}{2016}\right)=\dfrac{1}{4}-\dfrac{1}{2\cdot2015\cdot2016}< \dfrac{1}{4}\)
Vậy A<\(\dfrac{1}{4}\)
---bé hơn hoặc bằng tức là chỉ cần xảy ra 1 khả năng cũng thõa mãn nhé---
\(\dfrac{1}{1\cdot2}+\dfrac{1}{3\cdot4}+...+\dfrac{1}{49\cdot50}=1-\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}-\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}-\dfrac{1}{50}\\ =\left(1+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{5}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}\right)-\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\\ =\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)-2\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\\ =1+\dfrac{1}{2}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}-1-\dfrac{1}{2}-\dfrac{1}{3}-...-\dfrac{1}{25}\\ =\dfrac{1}{26}+\dfrac{1}{27}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\)
tại sao \(\left(1+\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{5}+...+\dfrac{1}{49}\right)-\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\\ =\left(1+\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{3}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)-2\left(\dfrac{1}{2}+\dfrac{1}{4}+...+\dfrac{1}{50}\right)\)