\(\frac{a-h}{h-b}=\frac{a}{b}\). Chứng minh :\(\frac{1}{h}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right)\)và ngược lại
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1/h=1/2(1/a+1/b)=1/2a+1/2b=(a+b)/2ab
=>(a+b/)2ab-1/h=0
quy dong len ta co
(a+b)h/2abh-2ab/2abh=0=> (ah+bh-2ab)/2abh=0 =>ah+bh-2ab=0
=>ah+bh-ab-ab=0
=>a(h-b)-b(a-h)=0
=>a(h-b)=b(a-h)
=>a/b=(a-h)(h-b)
\(=\left[\frac{\left(a^{\frac{1}{2}}-b^{\frac{1}{2}}\right)\left(a+a^{\frac{1}{2}}b^{\frac{1}{2}}+b\right)}{a^{\frac{1}{2}}-b^{\frac{1}{2}}}+a^{\frac{1}{2}}b^{\frac{1}{2}}\right]\left[\frac{a^{\frac{1}{2}}-b^{\frac{1}{2}}}{\left(a^{\frac{1}{2}}-b^{\frac{1}{2}}\right)\left(a^{\frac{1}{2}}+b^{\frac{1}{2}}\right)}\right]^2\)
\(=\frac{a+2a^{\frac{1}{2}}b^{\frac{1}{2}}+b}{\left(a^{\frac{1}{2}}+b^{\frac{1}{2}}\right)^2}=\frac{\left(a^{\frac{1}{2}}+b^{\frac{1}{2}}\right)^2}{\left(a^{\frac{1}{2}}+b^{\frac{1}{2}}\right)^2}=1\)
\(\frac{1}{h}=\frac{1}{2}.\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right)\Rightarrow\frac{1}{h}=\frac{1}{2}.\frac{a+b}{ab}\Rightarrow\frac{1}{h}=\frac{a+b}{2ab}\)
\(\Rightarrow2ab=h\left(a+b\right)\Rightarrow ab+ab=ha+hb\)
\(\Rightarrow ab-hb=ah-ab\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(a-h\right).b=\left(h-b\right).a\)
\(\Rightarrow\frac{a-h}{h-b}=\frac{a}{b}\) (đpcm)
2) Theo nguyên lí Dirichlet, trong ba số \(a^2-1;b^2-1;c^2-1\) có ít nhất hai số nằm cùng phía với 1.
Giả sử đó là a2 - 1 và b2 - 1. Khi đó \(\left(a^2-1\right)\left(b^2-1\right)\ge0\Leftrightarrow a^2b^2-a^2-b^2+1\ge0\)
\(\Rightarrow a^2b^2+3a^2+3b^2+9\ge4a^2+4b^2+8\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(a^2+3\right)\left(b^2+3\right)\ge4\left(a^2+b^2+2\right)\)
\(\Rightarrow\left(a^2+3\right)\left(b^2+3\right)\left(c^2+3\right)\ge4\left(a^2+b^2+1+1\right)\left(1+1+c^2+1\right)\) (2)
Mà \(4\left[\left(a^2+b^2+1+1\right)\left(1+1+c^2+1\right)\right]\ge4\left(a+b+c+1\right)^2\) (3)(Áp dụng Bunhicopxki và cái ngoặc vuông)
Từ (2) và (3) ta có đpcm.
Sai thì chịu
Xí quên bài 2 b:v
b) Không mất tính tổng quát, giả sử \(\left(a^2-\frac{1}{4}\right)\left(b^2-\frac{1}{4}\right)\ge0\)
Suy ra \(a^2b^2-\frac{1}{4}a^2-\frac{1}{4}b^2+\frac{1}{16}\ge0\)
\(\Rightarrow a^2b^2+a^2+b^2+1\ge\frac{5}{4}a^2+\frac{5}{4}b^2+\frac{15}{16}\)
Hay \(\left(a^2+1\right)\left(b^2+1\right)\ge\frac{5}{4}\left(a^2+b^2+\frac{3}{4}\right)\)
Suy ra \(\left(a^2+1\right)\left(b^2+1\right)\left(c^2+1\right)\ge\frac{5}{4}\left(a^2+b^2+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2}\right)\left(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}+c^2+\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
\(\ge\frac{5}{4}\left(\frac{1}{2}a+\frac{1}{2}b+\frac{1}{2}c+\frac{1}{2}\right)^2=\frac{5}{16}\left(a+b+c+1\right)^2\) (Bunhiacopxki) (đpcm)
Đẳng thức xảy ra khi \(a=b=c=\frac{1}{2}\)
Bài 2:b) \(9=\left(\frac{1}{a^3}+1+1\right)+\left(\frac{1}{b^3}+1+1\right)+\left(\frac{1}{c^3}+1+1\right)\)
\(\ge3\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)\therefore\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\le3\)
Ta sẽ chứng minh \(P\le\frac{1}{48}\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}+\frac{1}{c}\right)^2\)
Ai có cách hay?
1/Đặt a=1/x,b=1/y,c=1/z ->x+y+z=1.
2a) \(VT=\frac{\left(\frac{1}{a^3}+\frac{1}{b^3}\right)\left(\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}\right)}{\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}}\ge\frac{\left(\frac{1}{a^2}+\frac{1}{b^2}\right)^2}{\frac{1}{a}+\frac{1}{b}}\)
\(=\frac{\left[\frac{\left(a^2+b^2\right)^2}{a^4b^4}\right]}{\frac{a+b}{ab}}=\frac{\left(a^2+b^2\right)^2}{a^3b^3\left(a+b\right)}\ge\frac{\left(a+b\right)^3}{4\left(ab\right)^3}\)
\(\ge\frac{\left(a+b\right)^3}{4\left[\frac{\left(a+b\right)^2}{4}\right]^3}=\frac{16}{\left(a+b\right)^3}\)