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Xét ΔBAD có BI là đường trung tuyến
nên \(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{BD}\right)\)
=>\(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{AC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\dfrac{5}{3}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{AC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\cdot\dfrac{1}{3}\left(5\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{AC}\right)=\dfrac{1}{6}\left(5\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{AC}\right)=\dfrac{5}{6}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{5}\overrightarrow{AC}\right)\)
\(\overrightarrow{BM}=\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{AM}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{5}\overrightarrow{AC}\)
=>\(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{5}{6}\cdot\overrightarrow{BM}\)
=>B,I,M thẳng hàng
Cách 1: Dùng định lý Menelaus đảo:
Từ đề bài, ta có \(\dfrac{BD}{BC}=\dfrac{2}{3}\), \(\dfrac{MC}{MA}=\dfrac{3}{2}\), \(\dfrac{IA}{ID}=1\)
\(\Rightarrow\dfrac{BD}{BC}.\dfrac{MC}{MA}.\dfrac{IA}{ID}=1\)
Theo định lý Menelaus đảo, suy ra B, I, M thẳng hàng.
Cách 2: Dùng vector
Ta có \(\overrightarrow{BI}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left(\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{BD}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{1}{2}.\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{2}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{1}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{6}\left(3\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
Lại có \(\overrightarrow{BM}=\dfrac{MC}{AC}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{MA}{AC}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{3}{5}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{2}{5}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{1}{5}\left(3\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{6}{5}.\dfrac{1}{6}\left(3\overrightarrow{BA}+2\overrightarrow{BC}\right)\)
\(=\dfrac{6}{5}\overrightarrow{BI}\)
Vậy \(\overrightarrow{BM}=\dfrac{6}{5}\overrightarrow{BI}\), suy ra B, I, M thẳng hàng.
\(\left|\overrightarrow{AM}\right|=AM=\dfrac{a\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
a: \(\overrightarrow{BK}=\overrightarrow{BA}+\overrightarrow{AK}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{1}{3}\overrightarrow{AC}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{BA}-\dfrac{1}{3}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{1}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
\(=\dfrac{2}{3}\overrightarrow{BA}+\dfrac{1}{3}\overrightarrow{BC}\)
Lời giải:
\(\overrightarrow{AC}.\overrightarrow{BI}=(\overrightarrow{AM}+\overrightarrow{MC})(\overrightarrow{BM}+\overrightarrow{MI})\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AM}.\overrightarrow{BM}+\overrightarrow{AM}.\overrightarrow{MI}+\overrightarrow{MC}.\overrightarrow{BM}+\overrightarrow{MC}.\overrightarrow{MI}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AM}.\overrightarrow{MI}+\overrightarrow{MC}.\overrightarrow{BM}\)
\(=\overrightarrow{AM}.\frac{-\overrightarrow{AM}}{2}+\frac{\overrightarrow{BC}}{2}.\overrightarrow{BC}=\frac{BC^2-AM^2}{2}\)
\(=\frac{BC^2-(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}BC)^2}{2}=\frac{BC^2}{8}=\frac{9a^2}{8}\)