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Hình như đề bài sai đó bạn. \(x^2+y^2+z^2\)=0 nê x=y=z=0, vì sao lại có 2(x+y+z+3/2)=0 được
Ta có: \(\left(xy+2016z\right)\left(yz+2016z\right)\left(zx+2016y\right)\\ =\left(xy+\left(x+y+z\right)z\right)\left(yz+\left(x+y+z\right)x\right)\left(zx+\left(x+y+z\right)y\right)\\ =\left(xy+zx+zy+z^2\right)\left(yz+x^2+xy+xz\right)\left(zx+xỹ+y^2+yz\right)\\ =\left(y+z\right)\left(x+z\right)\left(x+z\right)\left(y+x\right)\left(z+y\right)\left(x+y\right)\\ =\left(y+z\right)^2\left(x+y\right)^2\left(z+x\right)^2\\ \Rightarrow\frac{\left(xy+2016z\right)\left(yz+2016z\right)\left(zx+2016y\right)}{\left(x+y\right)^2\left(y+z\right)^2\left(z+x\right)^2}\\ =\frac{\left(y+z\right)^2\left(x+y\right)^2\left(z+x\right)^2}{\left(x+y\right)^2\left(y+z\right)^2\left(z+x\right)^2}\\ =1\)
Thay \(2016=xyz\)vào biểu thức ta được
\(A=\frac{x^2yz}{xy+x^2yz+xyz}+\frac{y}{yz+y+xyz}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{x^2yz}{xy\left(1+xz+z\right)}+\frac{y}{y\left(z+1+xz\right)}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xz}{xz+z+1}+\frac{1}{xz+z+1}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}=\frac{xz+z+1}{xz+z+1}=1\)
Vậy \(A=1\)
Vì \(xyz=2016\)
\(\Rightarrow A=\frac{2016x}{xy+2016x+2016}+\frac{y}{yz+y+2016}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xyz.x}{xy+xyz.x+xyz}+\frac{y}{yz+y+xyz}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{x^2yz}{xy+x^2yz+xyz}+\frac{y}{y\left(z+1+xz\right)}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{x^2yz}{xy\left(1+xz+z\right)}+\frac{1}{xz+z+1}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xz}{xz+z+1}+\frac{1}{xz+z+1}+\frac{z}{xz+z+1}\)
\(=\frac{xz+1+z}{xz+z+1}=1\)